snipI would like to clarify one statement that I made earlier, since it seems to have been misunderstood.
It appears that in Civil law, stemming from Roman law, the terms"public law" and "private law" are usedto distinguish anddefine, respectively(i) laws created by the stategoverning the activities of the state and the interaction between the state and the individual or private entity vs. lawscreated by the state governing the activities of individuals/private entities and their interaction with each other. Thus, in Civil Law, public law and private law together make up the entire body of state-created law. By contrast, in Common Law usage, at least in the U.S., "public law" refers to the entire body of state-created law.
(As a side note, judge-made precedent generally does not have the binding effect in Civil Law that it does in Common Law, but that's not really relevant here.)
Moving on, I think the distinction between "private law" and "public law" creates confusion rather than clarity in this discussion. Perhaps it would be better to distinguish between "state actions" (i.e., disputes initiated by the state against a private party) and "private actions" (i.e., disputes initiated by one private party against another).
Greg